1 . What is an appropriate measure by the healthcare provider to manage a patient's pain when removing a dressing? A) Apply heat prior to removal B) Ensure the dressing is dry C) Use adhesive releaser spray D) Remove dressing quickly
Click to Review 2 . What dressing should the healthcare provider use for a cancer patient with an odiferous fungating wound? A) Charcoal-based B) Wet to dry C) Silicone foam D) Calcium alginate
Click to Review 3 . What is the best example of a healthcare provider using distraction to manage a patient's pain? A) Discussing each step of the dressing process B) Having the patient take long, slow, deep breaths during the procedure C) Applying ice to the wound for 15 minutes D) Having a family member present
Click to Review 4 . What intervention is most appropriate for the healthcare provider to determine the health goals of a patient with a chronic wound? A) Motivational interviewing B) Cultural assessment C) Spiritual assessment D) Therapeutic communication
Click to Review 5 . What is the best intervention by the healthcare provider for a patient with recurrent venous leg ulcers due to noncompliance with compression therapy? A) Providing education on the role of compression therapy B) Providing compression stockings in a larger size C) Encouraging the patient to elevate their legs D) Limiting the patient's fluid intake
Click to Review 6 . What should the healthcare provider consider when selecting a topical dressing for a patient's wound? A) The amount of erythema around the wound B) The amount of exudate from the wound C) The antibiotics patient is receiving D) The age of the patient
Click to Review 7 . What topical agent should the healthcare provider utilize to protect the periwound skin from a wound's exudate? A) Skin prep B) Moisturizer C) Tape D) Gauze
Click to Review 8 . What should a healthcare provider include in their wound assessment when using a hydrocolloid dressing? A) Damage to periwound skin on removal B) Drying out of wound bed C) Hypergranulation D) Autolytic debridement
Click to Review 9 . What is an appropriate response when a patient asks why Manuka honey is being used on their wound? A) "It is alkaline and therefore kills macrophages." B) "There are no negative side effects." C) "It increases oxygenation in wound tissue." D) "It increases free radicals, thus causing an anti-inflammatory effect."
Click to Review 10 . What dressing would be most appropriate for a healthcare provider to use on an infected wound? A) Silver impregnated B) Film C) Hydrocolloid D) Hydrogel
Click to Review 11 . When applying a negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) dressing to a wound that includes a deep tunnel, what type of dressing should the healthcare provider use in the tunnel? A) Polyvinyl alcohol foam B) Black polyurethane foam C) Impregnated silver foam D) No dressing should go in the tunnel.
Click to Review 12 . When performing a negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) dressing on a foot wound, what should the healthcare provider apply over an exposed tendon? A) Adaptic then black foam B) Hydrocolloid then black foam C) Tegaderm then black foam D) Gauze then black foam
Click to Review 13 . When performing a negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) dressing change on a wound, what would be most appropriate for the healthcare provider to apply to protect the periwound skin from moisture? A) Adhesive remover B) Calcium alginate dressing C) Five-layer foam D) Liquid skin barrier
Click to Review 14 . What is the appropriate action by the healthcare provider when negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) is ordered for a wound with untreated osteomyelitis? A) Apply the NPWT using white, then black foam. B) Apply the NPWT using adaptic, then black foam. C) Do not apply the NPWT until the osteomyelitis is treated. D) Do not apply the NPWT until the osteomyelitis is resolved.
Click to Review 15 . What is one benefit of the healthcare provider using negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT) with irrigation/instillation? A) It allows for the instillation of antibiotic solution. B) It decreases the frequency of NPWT dressing changes. C) It eliminates the use of foam to the wound bed. D) It eliminates the need for suction to the wound.
Click to Review 16 . When discussing the benefits of using a support surface, what should the healthcare provider include? A) It provides pressure relief. B) It provides pressure reduction. C) It redistributes pressure. D) It decreases peri-incisional edema.
Click to Review 17 . What does the healthcare provider order when they want to replace an existing mattress with a support surface? A) Mattress overlay B) Mattress replacement C) Integrated support surface D) Viscose elastic support surface
Click to Review 18 . What feature of support surfaces is especially relevant for patients who are diaphoretic? A) Microclimate control B) Redistribution properties C) Memory foam support D) Water-filled interface
Click to Review 19 . What criteria should the healthcare provider ensure is met for Medicare coverage of an air fluidized bed? A) The patient is bed or wheelchair bound. B) The patient's BMI is greater than 18. C) The patient is continent. D) The patient has two Stage 1 pressure injuries.
Click to Review 20 . What is important for the healthcare provider to consider when selecting a support surface for a morbidly obese patient? A) The support surface enables the patient to keep the head of the bed elevated more than 30 degrees. B) The width of the bed allows for the patient to reposition safely. C) The ability of the surface to rotate the patient to a lateral position. D) The ability of the surface to completely prevent moisture associated skin damage.
Click to Review 21 . What does the healthcare provider suspect when a patient complains of continuous leg pain at rest and in a dependent position? A) Peripheral arterial disease B) Venous insufficiency C) Mixed arterial and venous disease D) Intermittent claudication
Click to Review 22 . When inspecting the leg of a patient with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) what does the healthcare provider expect to find? A) Pitting edema B) Dependent pallor C) Absence of hair D) Pedal pulse + 2
Click to Review 23 . What should the healthcare provider infer when a patient's ankle brachial index (ABI) is 1.2? A) The patient has calcified vessels. B) The patient has mild peripheral arterial disease. C) The patient has critical limb ischemia. D) The findings are within normal limits.
Click to Review 24 . What is the most appropriate topical agent/dressing for a patient with an arterial ulcer that has a dry, stable eschar? A) Medihoney gel B) Santyl C) Betadine wipe D) Wet to dry
Click to Review 25 . When listening to a patient describe their wound-related pain, what is an indication that the wound is arterial? A) Pain improving at night B) Pain improving with activity C) Pain improving with rest D) Pain improving with elevation
Click to Review 26 . What does the healthcare provider include when discussing the healing process of chronic wounds? A) Most chronic wounds are infected with Escherichia coli. B) Chronic wounds often remain in the remodeling phase for a prolonged period of time. C) Chronic wounds often remain in the inflammatory phase for a prolonged period of time. D) Whether a wound will become chronic can be determined solely by the type of injury.
No support text associated with this question. Click to Review 27 . When would be the most appropriate time for a healthcare provider to initiate a topical antimicrobial agent on a wound? A) When there is local contamination B) When colonization has occurred C) When the patient has an infected wound and the infection is spreading D) When the wound has a local infection
No support text associated with this question. Click to Review 28 . What is the anticipated treatment for a client with a new onset of necrotizing fasciitis in the left foot? A) Emergent surgical debridement B) Administration of IV vancomycin C) Bedside debridement D) IV fluid resuscitation
No support text associated with this question. Click to Review 29 . What wound should the healthcare provider determine has the highest risk for wound infection? A) Wound with a small amount of exudate B) Wound with visible subcutaneous tissue C) New abdominal surgical incision D) Stage 4 pressure injury located on the sacrum
No support text associated with this question. Click to Review 30 . What information should the healthcare provider include when discussing biofilms? A) "Wounds with a biofilm need antibiotic treatment." B) "They are a complex structure of microbiome with different bacterial colonies." C) "Biofilms help wounds heal by shortening the inflammatory stage." D) "Wounds that have a biofilm are in the contamination stage of the wound infection continuum."
No support text associated with this question. Click to Review 31 . What does the healthcare provider consider when determining how to prepare a wound bed to optimize healing? A) Targeting strategies that only treat the underlying wound etiology B) Accelerating exogenous healing C) Removal of barriers to the healing process D) Is determined simply by the type of tissue in the wound bed
Click to Review 32 . What wound would the healthcare provider determine is appropriate for debridement? A) Wound with significant biofilm B) Wound with purulent discharge C) Ischemic ulcer with dry eschar D) Wound in a patient with an increased INR
Click to Review 33 . What would a healthcare provider utilize on a wound to provide mechanical debridement? A) Proteolytic enzymes B) Surgical debridement C) Wet to dry gauze dressing D) Hydrocolloid dressing
Click to Review 34 . What change in the wound bed leads the healthcare provider to determine that the chemical debridement agent being utilized is effective? A) Black necrotic tissue becomes increasingly adherent. B) Soggy and yellow slough tissue turns black. C) Amount of yellow slough tissue increases. D) Necrotic tissue begins to lift at distal wound edges.
Click to Review 35 . What is the appropriate action by the healthcare provider when they note dry gangrene on a patient's left second toe? A) Prepare patient for debridement B) Teach the patient to off-load the toe C) Refer the patient to podiatry and/or vascular services D) Refer patient to orthotist and/or physical therapy
Click to Review 36 . What does the healthcare provider chart when they find dark brownish red skin discoloration on the lower extremities of a patient with chronic venous insufficiency? A) Acroangiodermatitis B) Hemosiderin staining C) Virchow's triad D) Lipodermatosclerosis
Click to Review 37 . A patient presents with an ulceration on the pretibial area of their right leg that is superficial with an irregular shape, yellow slough in the wound base, and moderate serosanguinous exudate. The healthcare provider determines that this is most likely a(n) A) atypical ulceration. B) arterial ulcer. C) venous ulcer. D) neuropathic ulcer.
Click to Review 38 . What is the appropriate action when the healthcare provider notes that a patient's lower leg wound seems it might be a mixed arterial-venous ulceration? A) Vascular referral for additional testing/interventions B) Infectious disease referral for appropriate antibiotic therapy C) Physical therapy referral to increase patient mobility D) Podiatry referral for ongoing foot and toenail care
Click to Review 39 . What does the healthcare provider infer when obtaining a positive Stemmer sign on a patient with lower extremity edema? A) Venous disease is indicated B) Arterial disease is indicated C) Lymphedema is indicated D) Neuropathic disease is indicated
Click to Review 40 . A patient is admitted with uncompensated heart failure, an ejection fracture of 15, chronic venous insufficiency. and a chronic venous ulcer. What is an appropriate treatment for the ulcer? A) Absorbent topical dressing B) Inelastic zinc oxide bandage C) Four layer compression bandage D) Moisture retentive topical dressing
Click to Review 41 . What does the healthcare practitioner take into consideration when using an evidence-based practice approach for a patient's wound care? A) Clinician's opinion, patient's expectations, best clinical evidence B) Clinical expertise, patient's expectations, how wound care has traditionally been done C) Clinical expertise, patient's expectations, best clinical evidence D) Clinical expertise, patient's mental status, best clinical evidence
Click to Review 42 . What statement by the healthcare provider utilizes language reflective of evidence-based practice? A) "I think you should do this therapy." B) "I always have my patients use this particular therapy." C) "Here are the benefits and risks for each therapy option." D) "You must follow my directions exactly."
Click to Review 43 . What is the advantage of using a PICOT question when searching the literature for evidence? A) It facilitates experimental design. B) It helps guide alternative approaches. C) It helps form a hypothesis. D) It helps narrow the focus.
Click to Review 44 . When developing a PICOT question, the healthcare provider understands that the "P" stands for what term? A) Population B) Price C) Prevention D) Practice
Click to Review 45 . What does the stage of a pressure injury tell the healthcare practitioner about the injury? A) Amount of bioburden B) Amount of granulation tissue C) Depth of the injury D) Progression of the injury
Click to Review 46 . What stage does the healthcare provider assign to an area on a patient's buttocks that is pink and blanchable? A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Staging not indicated D) Deep tissue injury
Click to Review 47 . A patient has an area of deep red/maroon tissue on their right lateral ankle. What stage is the pressure injury? A) Deep tissue injury B) Stage 1 C) Stage 2 D) Staging not indicated
Click to Review 48 . What should the healthcare provider document when noting a pressure injury on the lower lip of a patient with an endotracheal tube? A) Deep tissue injury B) Mucous membrane pressure injury C) Unstageable pressure injury D) Stage 3 pressure injury
Click to Review 49 . What lab value is important to assess when determining a patient's nutritional status for the prevention/treatment of pressure injuries? A) White blood cell count B) Hemoglobin C) Prothrombin D) Albumin
Click to Review 50 . What symptom does the healthcare provider determine is an indication of sensory neuropathy? A) Dry skin B) Foot drop C) Paresthesia D) Rocker bottom foot
Click to Review 51 . When the healthcare provider notes hemorrhaging into a callus, what do they anticipate finding? A) Decreased arterial flow B) Neuropathic ulceration C) Increased lymphedema D) Cellulitis
Click to Review 52 . What assessment findings would a healthcare provider anticipate finding related to the wound of a patient with a neuropathic ulceration? A) Pale or pink wound bed B) Irregular shape and edges C) Copious amounts of drainage D) Tunneling in wound bed
Click to Review 53 . When providing discharge instructions on foot care for a patient with neuropathy, what should the healthcare provider include? A) Soak feet daily in hot water with Epsom salts B) Walk in bare feet whenever possible C) Use medicated corn pads as needed D) Wear socks with shoes
Click to Review 54 . What would be an indication that a patient has a motor neuropathy? A) Prominent metatarsal heads and claw toes B) Hyperemia and fissures C) Balance and walking impairment D) Paresthesia and proprioception
Click to Review 55 . When assessing a patient with superficial second-degree burns, what layer of skin is most likely involved? A) Involves epidermis and some of the dermis B) Involves epidermal layer only C) Involves muscles and bones D) Involves the subcutaneous tissue
Click to Review 56 . Which of the following burn patients is in need of IV fluid resuscitation according to the total body surface area (TBSA) involved? A) Patient with TBSA of 5 B) Patient with TBSA of 25 C) Patient with TBSA of 10 D) Patient with TBSA of 15
Click to Review 57 . What is one reason for the healthcare provider to remove necrotic tissue on a patient with burns? A) To evaluate the depth and severity of the burn wound B) To decrease the painful stimuli of necrotic tissue C) To prevent additional fluid seepage into the wound D) To decrease the total body surface area of the wound
Click to Review 58 . What is the most appropriate topical treatment for an infected burn wound? A) Soothing lotion B) Foam dressing C) Non-stick dressing D) Targeted topical antibiotics
Click to Review 59 . What should the healthcare provider include when discussing the pathology of thermal burns? A) Increase in core body temperature destroys skin cells. B) The vesicant destroys skin cells. C) The temperature of the skin is increased to the point of tissue death. D) Contact with the oxidant decreases oxygen flow to the skin.
Click to Review 60 . What does the healthcare provider suspect when a patient presents with end stage renal disease and a patchy, irregular, dusky area of mottling on their right lower extremity? A) Necrotizing fasciitis B) Sickle cell ulceration C) Fournier gangrene D) Calciphylaxis
Click to Review 61 . What does the healthcare provider suspect when an atypical wound's biopsy reveals calcium within scarred and blocked blood vessels of the skin? A) Arterial ulceration B) Sickle cell ulceration C) Pyoderma gangrenosum D) Calciphylaxis
Click to Review 62 . What is one of the most common causes for lower extremity wounds in patients with rheumatoid arthritis? A) Ascites B) Renal disease C) Hypertension D) Arterial disease
Click to Review 63 . What area should the healthcare provider assess as the most likely area for ulcerations in a client with sickle cell disease? A) Mid-calf B) Dorsal foot surface C) Plantar foot surface D) Malleolus
Click to Review 64 . What etiology should the healthcare provider consider when a patient presents with wounds on the genitalia and perianal areas that were preceded by intense pain in the genitalia? A) Necrotizing fasciitis B) Vasculitis C) Sickle cell lesions D) Fournier gangrene
Click to Review 65 . The healthcare provider conducts a Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA) for a patient with a chronic lower extremity wound. What is the correct interpretation for a score of 10? A) The patient is at risk for obesity. B) The patient is at risk for malnutrition. C) The patient is malnourished. D) The patient has normal nutritional status.
Click to Review 66 . What amount of daily water should the healthcare provider recommended to maintain hydration and facilitate wound healing in a patient with a lower extremity wound? A) 30/mL/kg B) 20 mL/kg C) 40 mL/kg D) 10 mL/kg
Click to Review 67 . What food choice would be best for a patient with a leg ulceration trying to increase zinc in their diet? A) Dark green, leafy vegetables B) Citrus fruits C) Dried fruits D) Seafood
Click to Review 68 . What is the healthcare provider's interpretation of a patient's total protein level of 4.5 g/dL? A) The total protein level is low. B) The total protein level is within normal limits. C) The total protein level is high. D) The patient is consuming too many proteins.
Click to Review 69 . What lab values will be of most value to the healthcare provider when attempting to determine a patient's protein status? A) Potassium and sodium B) Albumin and prealbumin C) Hemoglobin and hematocrit D) BUN and creatinine
Click to Review 70 . What is the appropriate intervention by the healthcare provider when pink, cobblestone-like tissue is noted in the base of a full-thickness wound? A) Initiate autolytic debridement B) Perform a wound biopsy C) Begin wet to dry Dakin dressings D) Continue the current treatment
Click to Review 71 . What does the healthcare provider infer when noting rolled thick tissue along a wound's margins? A) The wound is infected. B) The wound is a pressure injury. C) The wound needs debridement. D) The wound is a chronic wound.
Click to Review 72 . What reference points should the healthcare provider utilize when determining a wound's length? A) Patient's head and toes B) Patient's left and right side C) Where the deepest part of the wound occurs D) Face of a clock
Click to Review 73 . A patient has two wounds located on the right lower extremity. Wound A is located 2 cm below Wound B. Wound B should be referred to as what type of wound? A) Distal wound B) Proximal wound C) Medial wound D) Lateral wound
Click to Review 74 . What should the healthcare provider document when a narrow tract/channel is noted extending deeper into the body from the center of the wound bed? A) Undermining B) Tunneling C) Necrosis D) Infection
Click to Review 75 . What action by a healthcare provider caring for a chronic wound would be considered negligent? A) Providing treatment that is not the current standard of care B) Providing treatment that a reasonably competent professional would do in the same circumstances C) Providing treatment for a wound that is evidence based D) Using an off-label treatment that many other wound certified healthcare providers use
Click to Review 76 . What doctrine might enable a healthcare provider to be held blameless when a mistake is made during an difficult/emergent situation? A) Good Samaritan Doctrine B) Hold Blameless Doctrine C) Sudden Peril Doctrine D) Monroe's Doctrine
Click to Review 77 . What is important to consider when determining the appropriateness of a healthcare provider's documentation during a legal case? A) The experience level of the healthcare provider B) The healthcare provider's institution's documentation guidelines C) If documentation was computer-based D) If a discharge summary was completed
Click to Review 78 . A patient who received wound care files a suit against the facility where their healthcare provider treated them. What should the healthcare provider anticipate occurring next? A) Meeting with the patient's lawyer B) Meeting with the facility's legal team C) Receiving a subpoena to testify in court D) Meeting with the state licensing board
Click to Review 79 . When a healthcare provider practicing in the United States assesses patient risk for lymphedema, what patient would they considered to have the highest risk? A) Patient with breast cancer B) Patient receiving hemodialysis C) Patient with congestive heart failure D) Patient with cirrhosis
Click to Review 80 . A patient with lymphedema presents with observable edema that pits with pressure and resolves with elevation. No fibrotic changes are noted on the patient's skin. What is the patient's stage of lymphedema? A) Stage 0 B) Stage 1 C) Stage 2 D) Stage 3
Click to Review 81 . How should the healthcare provider respond when a patient with a congenital impairment of their lymphatic system asks them what causes the swelling (lymphedema) associated with the disease? A) Blood vessels that become swollen and leak out fluid B) An increase in the amount of fluid ingested produced C) The lymphatic load exceeds transport capacity of lymphatic system D) A buildup of plaque in the lymphatic system's lymph nodes
Click to Review 82 . What type of compression should be utilized for a patient in the intensive phase of treatment for lymphedema? A) Long stretch multilayered bandages B) Compression garment C) Short-stretch multilayered wraps D) Ace wraps
Click to Review 83 . What should the healthcare provider assess for when determining whether compression therapy is contraindicated in a patient with lymphedema? A) Existing venous disease B) Decompensated congestive heart failure C) Open, draining wounds D) Type 1 diabetes
Click to Review 84 . What is the rate of turnover for the epidermal layer of the skin? A) 1 to 14 days B) 16 to 35 days C) 26 to 42 days D) 45 to 90 days
Click to Review 85 . What occurs during the inflammatory phase of wound healing? A) Neutrophils, macrophages, and lymphocytes begin to establish a clean wound bed. B) New blood vessels begin to form and collagen is produced. C) Wound surface gains a large bacterial load. D) Fibroblasts synthesize new connective tissue.
Click to Review 86 . A patient presents with a scar on their right hand. What does the healthcare provider understand about the scarred skin? A) Scarred skin has less tensile strength than non-wounded skin. B) Scarred skin is stronger than non-wounded skin. C) Scarred skin will epithelialized faster than non-scarred skin. D) Scarred skin occurs when the inflammatory phase is prolonged.
Click to Review 87 . What is important for healthcare providers to remember about the skin of older adults? A) Inflammatory response is prolonged. B) Immunocompetence of the skin increase. C) Skin elasticity increases. D) Epidermal-dermal junction weakens.
Click to Review 88 . What layer of the skin contains adipose cells, blood vessels, and connective tissue? A) Dermis B) Subcutaneous C) Epidermis D) Stratum corneum
Click to Review 89 . When the healthcare provider is considering use of a biophysical agent for wound healing, what modality might they be considering? A) Continuous irrigation B) Electrical stimulation C) Chemical debridement D) Compression wraps
Click to Review 90 . What biological effects does the healthcare provider hope to incur when using LED light therapy for wound healing? A) Decreased collagen formation B) Decreased fibroblast formation C) Increased inflammatory cells D) Increased angiogenesis formation
Click to Review 91 . What should the healthcare provider determine is a contraindication for wound healing with electrical stimulation therapy? A) Cancerous lesions B) Diabetic foot ulcers C) Pressure injuries D) Venous ulcerations
Click to Review 92 . To protect the peri wound skin during negative pressure wound therapy (NPWT), what can the healthcare provider utilize? A) Zinc oxide ointment B) Moisturizer C) NPWT film/tape D) Barrier cream
Click to Review 93 . When considering pulse lavage therapy for a patient, what would the healthcare provider determine is a contraindication? A) Wound actively bleeding B) Wound with tunneling C) Wound with non-viable tissue D) Wound with granulation
Click to Review 94 . When the healthcare provider is explaining hyperbaric oxygen therapy, they include that the patient is hyperoxygenated and then submersed to a sub-atmospheric level. This causes what condition? A) Vasoconstriction, which decreases edema and increases oxygen in the tissues B) Vasodilation, which increases blood flow to the tissues C) Release of angiotensin, which increases oxygen to the tissues D) Increased blood pressure, which increases blood flow to the tissues
Click to Review 95 . What type of wound would it be appropriate for the healthcare provider to recommend hyperbaric oxygen therapy? A) Stage 2 pressure injury B) Healing graft C) Dry gangrene D) Eviscerated incision
Click to Review 96 . What wound occurring in a patient with either type 1 or type 2 diabetes would be covered by CMS for hyperbaric oxygen therapy? A) Venous ulceration above the malleolus B) Wagner grade III plantar foot wound C) Stage 3 sacral pressure injury D) Stage 2 heel pressure injury
Click to Review 97 . What is one of the common complications of hyperbaric oxygen therapy? A) Hypoglycemia B) Transient numbness C) Tinnitus D) Migraine
Click to Review 98 . What is the most common timeframe that patients stay at the prescribed Atmospheres Absolute (ATA) below sea level? A) 60 minutes B) 30 minutes C) 10 minutes D) 90 minutes
Click to Review 