Oncology Nursing: A Comprehensive Review

Course #30130-


Study Points

  1. Describe cancer trends in the United States and worldwide.
  2. Describe risk factors for cancer development and prevention and screening methods.
  3. Analyze methods used to diagnose the presence of malignancy, including imaging and biopsies, and to stage tumors based on the extent of disease in the body.
  4. Review cancer treatment modalities, including surgery, radiation, chemotherapy including the safe handling of drugs, vascular access, and selected targeted and immunologic therapies.
  5. Evaluate complementary, alternative, and integrative therapies and their role in the support of cancer patients.
  6. Describe ethical considerations important to conducting clinical research with human subjects, the phases of clinical trial studies, and the role of the nurse.
  7. Recognize the most common side effects associated with cancer treatment, signs and symptoms of oncologic emergencies, and appropriate clinical interventions.
  8. Describe epidemiologic trends, risk factors, symptoms, detection, and treatment methods and nursing care of solid tumors involving, the lungs, colorectal cancer, breast and prostate, ovarian and endometrial cancers, the kidney and/or bladder, the central nervous system and pancreas, and the skin.
  9. Describe epidemiologic trends relating to lymphoma, multiple myeloma, and leukemia; diagnosis and treatment methods; and nursing care for each of these hematologic malignancies.
  10. Identify psychosocial, financial, and structural stressors and coping and support strategies for patients and their families including older patients, multicultural populations, and those of other sexual orientations.
  11. Discuss the important aspects of survivorship care, palliative care, the hospice model, pain management, and quality-of-life and end-of-life issues.
  12. Identify select professional issues, including the importance of promoting quality care, patient safety, and performance improvement strategies and the use of technology and innovations.

    1 . Cells that are considered to be undifferentiated compared to normal cells in their tissue of origin are those that have done which of the following?
    A) Undergone an abnormal increase in the number of cells
    B) Entered the resting, non-dividing state
    C) Lost the specialized function and life span of the normal cells
    D) Reached maturity and are no longer capable of reproduction

    BIOLOGY OF CANCER

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    2 . A woman receives the pathology report describing the tissue specimen removed from the lump in her breast. Which of these findings indicate that the tumor is benign?
    A) There are many cells in mitosis.
    B) The cells appear undifferentiated.
    C) There is no capsule around the tumor.
    D) The tumor has a well-defined capsule.

    BIOLOGY OF CANCER

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    3 . Damage to DNA can cause genetic changes in all types of body cells. If the genetic change occurs in a sex cell (egg or sperm), which of these effects can occur?
    A) The genetic change is not passed on by the affected parent.
    B) The genetic change is passed on to every cell in the affected parent's offspring.
    C) This type of genetic change is responsible for most cases of cancer.
    D) The genetic change is called a sporadic variant.

    BIOLOGY OF CANCER

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    4 . A patient is scheduled for a colonoscopy because she just turned 45 years old. This is an example of which type of prevention?
    A) Primary prevention
    B) Secondary prevention
    C) Tertiary prevention
    D) Quaternary prevention

    EPIDEMIOLOGY

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    5 . The nurse conducts a risk assessment of a 41-year-old woman. The purpose of the risk assessment is to select the appropriate
    A) genetic tests to order.
    B) screening recommendations.
    C) diagnostic evaluation.
    D) treatment plan.

    EPIDEMIOLOGY

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    6 . The average risk of developing cancer at a certain age is known as which of the following?
    A) Relative risk
    B) Absolute risk
    C) Attributable risk
    D) Cumulative risk

    EPIDEMIOLOGY

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    7 . For persons at average risk for developing colorectal cancer, the American Cancer Society recommends a colonoscopy, beginning at 45 years of age, every how many years?
    A) 3 years
    B) 5 years
    C) 7 years
    D) 10 years

    SCREENING AND EARLY DETECTION

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    8 . Risk factors for colorectal cancer include which of the following?
    A) Being younger than 50 years
    B) Eating a low-fat, low-calorie, and low-fiber diet
    C) A history of colorectal polyps
    D) Having a history of cervical or skin cancer

    SCREENING AND EARLY DETECTION

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    9 . Prostate cancer is most common in which group?
    A) African American men
    B) Hispanic men
    C) White men
    D) Native American men

    SCREENING AND EARLY DETECTION

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    10 . Following a lumpectomy for breast cancer, a specimen of tumor tissue is sent to a laboratory for further testing. All of these tests may be performed, EXCEPT:
    A) Oncotype DX
    B) Hormone-receptor assay
    C) Prostate-specific antigen (PSA) levels
    D) Human epidermal growth factor receptor 2 (HER2) overexpression

    CANCER DIAGNOSIS AND TUMOR STAGING

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    11 . A computed tomography (CT) scan is ordered to image the lungs of a patient with a nagging cough. The nurse understands the following about a CT scan:
    A) A CT scan uses x-rays to generate cross-sectional "slices" of the body.
    B) A CT scan is contraindicated for someone with a cardiac pacemaker.
    C) The CT scanner uses magnetic waves to create images of the body.
    D) The CT scanner uses the same amount of radiation as does an x-ray.

    CANCER DIAGNOSIS AND TUMOR STAGING

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    12 . A patient whose cancer was assigned a cancer stage when she was first diagnosed with breast cancer has been treated with a lumpectomy and lymph node dissection. She may be assigned a new cancer stage based on examination of her tumor specimens. What is this type of staging called?
    A) Clinical staging
    B) Pathological staging
    C) Metastatic staging
    D) Regional staging

    CANCER DIAGNOSIS AND TUMOR STAGING

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    13 . Which of the following is a term used when cancer treatments are scheduled to occur during the same treatment period?
    A) Sequential treatment
    B) Adjuvant treatment
    C) Concurrent treatment
    D) Neoadjuvant treatment

    SURGICAL PROCEDURES IN THE TREATMENT OF CANCER

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    14 . Which type of surgery is often used for cancers of the colon, prostate, and uterus due to its associated reduced blood loss and pain as well as a shortened hospital stay and recovery?
    A) Cryosurgery
    B) Electrosurgery
    C) Robotic surgery
    D) Stereotactic radiation therapy

    SURGICAL PROCEDURES IN THE TREATMENT OF CANCER

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    15 . What type of surgery involves the removal of one very thin layer of skin at time and examining it under a microscope to determine the need for further excision?
    A) Robotic surgery
    B) Cryosurgery
    C) Mohs surgery
    D) Laser surgery

    SURGICAL PROCEDURES IN THE TREATMENT OF CANCER

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    16 . Prophylactic radiation therapy is used to do which of the following?
    A) Control bone pain
    B) Destroy metastatic tumors
    C) Relieve intestinal obstruction
    D) Treat areas at risk for metastasis

    RADIATION THERAPY

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    17 . Treatment with accelerated fractionation radiation therapy is planned for a patient diagnosed with breast cancer. Which explanation should the nurse provide to the patient about this type of treatment? "Compared to a standard radiation treatment schedule, you will receive
    A) a smaller total dose of radiation in a shorter period of time."
    B) the same total radiation dose divided into larger doses given once a day or less often."
    C) a higher total dose of radiation over the same time period."
    D) two radiation treatments a day over a shorter time period but the total dose will be the same."

    RADIATION THERAPY

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    18 . The nurse caring for a patient with an intravaginal radioactive implant should take all of these measures, EXCEPT:
    A) Sit with the patient to provide emotional support
    B) Minimize the time spent in the patient's room
    C) Stand behind a lead shield at the bedside
    D) Maximize the distance from the patient

    RADIATION THERAPY

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    19 . Following tumor debulking, tumors
    A) are less responsive to chemotherapy.
    B) have increased blood supply.
    C) are decreased in size.
    D) have smaller growth fractions.

    CHEMOTHERAPY AND SAFE HANDLING

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    20 . Doxorubicin has a dose limit to prevent what condition?
    A) Nephrotoxicity
    B) Neurotoxicity
    C) Cardiotoxicity
    D) Pulmonary toxicity

    CHEMOTHERAPY AND SAFE HANDLING

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    21 . All of the following are correct regarding combination chemotherapy, EXCEPT:
    A) Affect cell cycle at different phases
    B) Regulates toxicity
    C) Increases number of tumor cells exposed to chemotherapy
    D) Increases drug resistance

    CHEMOTHERAPY AND SAFE HANDLING

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    22 . BRAF mutations occur most commonly in what type of cancer?
    A) Colorectal cancer
    B) Papillary thyroid cancer
    C) Non-small cell lung cancer
    D) Melanoma

    TARGETED THERAPIES AND IMMUNOTHERAPY

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    23 . What is the most common acute adverse event associated with CAR-T cell therapy?
    A) Hypogammaglobulinemia
    B) Cytokine release syndrome
    C) Pruritic rash
    D) B-cell aplasia

    TARGETED THERAPIES AND IMMUNOTHERAPY

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    24 . In a patient on BRAF/MEK inhibitor therapy experiencing a fever of 38.6 degrees Celsius after initiation of treatment, all of the following should be considered, EXCEPT:
    A) A smaller total dose of radiation in a shorter period of time
    B) The same total radiation dose divided into larger doses given once a day or less often
    C) A higher total dose of radiation over the same time period
    D) Two radiation treatments a day over a shorter time period but the total dose will be the same.

    TARGETED THERAPIES AND IMMUNOTHERAPY

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    25 . You suspect that your patient developed a catheter-related thrombosis. What diagnostic test should you educate the patient about?
    A) Computed tomography (CT)
    B) Chest radiology
    C) Perfusion scan
    D) Doppler ultrasound

    VASCULAR ACCESS IN ONCOLOGY

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    26 . You received an order to infuse doxorubicin using a peripheral intravenous catheter. Based on your knowledge about doxorubicin, you should remember to
    A) maintain a good blood return.
    B) use a smaller-gauge, steel needle.
    C) access a vein below the vein used for venipuncture.
    D) administer the vesicant as quickly as possible to decrease the risk of extravasation.

    VASCULAR ACCESS IN ONCOLOGY

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    27 . All of the following are central venous catheters, EXCEPT:
    A) Peripherally inserted central catheter
    B) Tunneled catheter
    C) Midline catheter
    D) Non-tunneled catheter

    VASCULAR ACCESS IN ONCOLOGY

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    28 . Stem cells used in syngeneic transplantation are derived from what individual?
    A) The patient
    B) An unrelated donor
    C) The identical twin of the recipient
    D) The fraternal twin of the recipient

    HEMATOPOIETIC STEM CELL TRANSPLANTATION

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    29 . What is the commonly used marker for stem cells during collection?
    A) HLA
    B) CD34+
    C) ABO
    D) DNA

    HEMATOPOIETIC STEM CELL TRANSPLANTATION

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    30 . An allogeneic stem cell transplant patient reports erythematous maculopapular skin rash on her neck and shoulders on Day +14. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
    A) Skin rash is the earliest and most common clinical feature of acute graft versus host disease.
    B) The skin rash is consistent with contact dermatitis and should resolve after using hypoallergenic laundry detergent.
    C) The integumentary system is least affected by GVHD.
    D) Skin rash is not a manifestation of GVHD.

    HEMATOPOIETIC STEM CELL TRANSPLANTATION

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    31 . Which of the following is not a commonly used scale for patient self-report of pain?
    A) Letter scale
    B) Numerical scale
    C) Categorical scale
    D) Visual analog scale

    CANCER PAIN

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    32 . Which of the following is not a risk factor for respiratory depression with opioid medication?
    A) Obesity
    B) Sleep apnea
    C) Kidney failure
    D) Poor appetite

    CANCER PAIN

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    33 . Which situation is a referral to palliative medicine NOT suitable for?
    A) Patient with a history of a substance abuse disorder
    B) Patient with intense psychosocial distress
    C) When higher doses of opioids are necessary for pain control
    D) At the time of diagnosis

    CANCER PAIN

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    34 . What type of therapy is the combination of conventional medicine with complementary and alternative medicine (CAM) therapies that have been scientifically proven to be safe and effective?
    A) Complementary
    B) Integrative
    C) Alternative
    D) Conventional

    COMPLEMENTARY THERAPIES IN CANCER CARE

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    35 . According to the National Health Survey of 2012, what was the most common complementary health approach utilized by adults in the United States?
    A) Deep breathing
    B) Massage
    C) Osteopathic manipulation
    D) Dietary supplements

    COMPLEMENTARY THERAPIES IN CANCER CARE

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    36 . The Society for Integrative Oncology has published guidelines regarding the use of complementary medicine for patients with what types of cancer?
    A) Colon cancer and kidney cancer
    B) Breast cancer and lung cancer
    C) Prostate cancer and ovarian cancer
    D) Skin cancer and lymphoma

    COMPLEMENTARY THERAPIES IN CANCER CARE

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    37 . Your patient has prostate cancer with metastasis to the axial skeleton. He is experiencing significant pain despite narcotics. What is a possible approach to this pain?
    A) External beam radiation to the bone sites
    B) Relaxation and visual imagery
    C) Epidural analgesia
    D) Administration of strontium chloride

    ONCOLOGY SYMPTOM MANAGEMENT

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    38 . Cis Platinum is considered highly emetogenic. Evidence-based guidelines suggest which antiemetic regimen for highly emetogenic chemotherapy regimens?
    A) Prochlorperazine only
    B) Ondansetron, aprepitant, dexamethasone
    C) Metochlopramide and dexamethasone
    D) Palonosetron and dexamethasone

    ONCOLOGY SYMPTOM MANAGEMENT

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    39 . Your patient with AML is noted to have anemia. What do you expect to be done for this anemia?
    A) Red blood cell transfusions
    B) Iron replacement
    C) Erythropoietin
    D) Albumin infusions

    ONCOLOGY SYMPTOM MANAGEMENT

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    40 . Which of these factors is true of Phase 1 cancer clinical trials?
    A) There is no use of placebo drugs.
    B) They are conducted in many types of treatment settings.
    C) Hundreds of patients are enrolled in the trial.
    D) Subjects with a variety of cancer types are included.

    CANCER CLINICAL TRIALS

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    41 . The research nurse in the cancer center is instructing the staff nurses about a new clinical trial that has become available to patients on the unit. The research nurse should tell the staff nurses that the specific details about administering and monitoring the trial interventions can be found in which of these documents?
    A) HIPAA form
    B) Belmont Report
    C) Study protocol
    D) Consent form

    CANCER CLINICAL TRIALS

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    42 . A person calls the nurse on the bone marrow transplant unit to ask for information about whether his neighbor has received a stem cell transplant. What is the most appropriate response the nurse can make?
    A) "I'll review his chart and get back to you shortly. Give me your phone number."
    B) "I can't give out that information because it would violate the GINA act."
    C) "I'll see if the patient has designated you as someone who can receive their health information."
    D) "I'll check the meeting notes of the Data and Safety Monitoring Board."

    CANCER CLINICAL TRIALS

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    43 . Patients with tumor lysis syndrome require IVFs to increase renal perfusion and reduce renal toxicity of the uric acid crystals. What IVFs are contraindicated?
    A) D5W
    B) NS
    C) LR
    D) D5W + sodium bicarbonate

    ONCOLOGICAL EMERGENCIES

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    44 . Your patient with lung cancer is complaining of worsening shortness of breath when laying on his back and feeling of chest pressure and pain. What could be going on?
    A) CHF
    B) Cardiac tamponade
    C) Obstruction
    D) Heart attack

    ONCOLOGICAL EMERGENCIES

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    45 . Your patient with acute promyelocytic leukemia has a platelet count of 25,000 and was given 1 unit of platelets for bleeding despite the platelet count. After the platelet infusion, you continue to notice oozing around the bone marrow biopsy site and around the central venous catheter. What could be going on?
    A) Antibodies to platelets
    B) Disseminated intravascular coagulation
    C) Thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura
    D) This is very normal in patients with leukemia and nothing to worry about.

    ONCOLOGICAL EMERGENCIES

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    46 . How can squamous cell lung cancer present?
    A) Malignant epithelial components
    B) Glandular and squamous components
    C) Pancoast tumor and hypercalcemia
    D) Mucinous and nonmucinous components

    LUNG CANCER

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    47 . Where does lung cancer typically start?
    A) Trachea and larynx
    B) Lining of the bronchi, bronchioles, or alveoli
    C) Pleura space and invades inward
    D) No specific spot; each case is different

    LUNG CANCER

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    48 . What is a tumor marker?
    A) Surgical site marked for tumor extraction
    B) Radiation tattoo to mark the radiation field
    C) Amount of a carcinogen the patient is exposed to
    D) Substance, often a protein, produced by the cancer tissue or body in response to cancer

    LUNG CANCER

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    49 . Mr. J is a 70-year-old patient who has been diagnosed with colorectal cancer. After undergoing first- and second-line treatment for his disease, he has maintained a stable disease for five years. Recently he started complaining of dyspnea on exertion, pain in his hips, and his skin has a yellowish coloration. Test results show he has disease progression with metastatic disease. Mr. and Mrs. J have discussed it and do not want to continue any more treatment. What should your intervention be?
    A) Listen to their discussion of the decision.
    B) Accept their right to stop treatment and begin education on palliative care and end-of-life options.
    C) Encourage them to seek a second opinion on better treatment options available. Tell them about the treatment regimen he will take and schedule the first treatment. They just need time to think it through.
    D) Ask the physician to come back in and discuss treatment options. It is not like Mr. J to give up.

    COLORECTAL CANCER

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    50 . Which stool test may be used to assist in screening for colorectal cancer?
    A) Guaiac-based fecal occult blood test
    B) Fecal immunochemical test (FIT)
    C) FIT - DNA test
    D) All of the above

    COLORECTAL CANCER

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    51 . What part of the digestive system is considered colorectal?
    A) Large intestine and rectum
    B) Esophagus and stomach
    C) Stomach and small intestine
    D) Small intestine and the biliary tract

    COLORECTAL CANCER

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    52 . Which symptom is important to consider when considering the development of sepsis?
    A) Fever
    B) Fatigue
    C) Malaise
    D) Neuropathy

    BREAST AND PROSTATE CANCER

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    53 . Which lab test could be helpful with prostate cancer screening and management?
    A) Calcium level
    B) Prostate specific antigen (PSA)
    C) Alkaline phosphatase
    D) White blood cell count

    BREAST AND PROSTATE CANCER

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    54 . Which of the following racial groups has the highest incidence of prostate cancer?
    A) Asian Americans
    B) Hispanics
    C) Ashkenazi Jews
    D) African Americans

    BREAST AND PROSTATE CANCER

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    55 . What is not a possible side effect associated with first-line chemotherapies used to treat endometrial cancer?
    A) Decreased cardiac function
    B) Renal damage
    C) Neuropathy
    D) Pulmonary toxicity

    OVARIAN AND ENDOMETRIAL CANCERS

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    56 . What is the most common presenting symptom for endometrial cancer?
    A) Unusual vaginal bleeding
    B) Unintentional weight loss
    C) Palpable mass
    D) Pain during intercourse

    OVARIAN AND ENDOMETRIAL CANCERS

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    57 . What is not part of the initial work-up for ovarian cancer in a symptomatic woman?
    A) Ultrasound
    B) Lab work with CA 125
    C) Brain MRI
    D) Detailed family history

    OVARIAN AND ENDOMETRIAL CANCERS

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    58 . What is the goal of immunotherapy?
    A) Restrict metastasis
    B) Boost the body's natural defenses to fight cancer
    C) Prevent cancer
    D) Assist in early detection of cancer

    KIDNEY CANCER

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    59 . What element exposure can increase your risk of kidney cancer?
    A) Copper
    B) Cadmium
    C) Iron
    D) Aluminum

    KIDNEY CANCER

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    60 . All of the following are functions of the kidney, EXCEPT:
    A) Extracts waste from the blood creating urine
    B) Balances body fluids, water, and blood, with renin and erythropoietin
    C) Maintains pH balance
    D) Secretes enzymes for breakdown of sugars, fats and starches

    KIDNEY CANCER

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    61 . Targeted therapy used to treat bladder cancer targets which specific molecules found in these cells?
    A) Vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF)
    B) BCR-ABL fusion gene
    C) Fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR)
    D) BRAF gene

    BLADDER CANCER

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    62 . The inner lining of the bladder is made up of what cell type?
    A) Transitional epithelium
    B) Keratinocyte
    C) Adipocyte
    D) Endothelial

    BLADDER CANCER

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    63 . Which procedure can be used in the diagnosis phase to examine the bladder lining and biopsy any abnormalities seen?
    A) Urine cytology
    B) Ultrasound
    C) Positron emission tomography scan
    D) Cystoscopy

    BLADDER CANCER

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    64 . Which part of the brain is responsible for balance and coordination of movement?
    A) Pineal gland
    B) Brain stem
    C) Cerebellum
    D) Pituitary gland

    CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM AND PANCREATIC CANCERS

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    65 . The Whipple procedure removes which of the following?
    A) Head of pancreas and distal portion of stomach
    B) Tail of pancreas and gall bladder
    C) Head of pancreas and duodenum
    D) Tail of pancreas and distal portion of the stomach

    CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM AND PANCREATIC CANCERS

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    66 . Malabsorption is a common problem in persons with pancreatic cancer because of which of the following?
    A) Diabetes
    B) Anorexia
    C) Exocrine insufficiency
    D) Chemotherapy

    CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM AND PANCREATIC CANCERS

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    67 . The nurse is teaching the patient about sunscreen application. Which of the following should be included?
    A) Apply 10 minutes before exposure begins
    B) Apply generously, about a half ounce for an adult
    C) Reapply every 90 minutes
    D) Do not apply to the face to prevent acne

    SKIN CANCERS

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    68 . Which of the following has been determined to be most helpful in predicting the prognosis of malignant melanoma?
    A) Age of patient
    B) Breslow level
    C) Location of melanoma
    D) Gender of the patient

    SKIN CANCERS

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    69 . Which one of the following people would have the highest risk of developing skin cancer?
    A) 15-year-old male African American student
    B) 30-year-old female Asian teacher
    C) 69-year-old Hispanic factory worker
    D) 74-year-old White corn farmer

    SKIN CANCERS

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    70 . All of the following are the classic triad of symptoms of multiple myeloma, EXCEPT:
    A) Lytic bone lesions
    B) Elevated M protein
    C) Increased plasma cells in the bone marrow
    D) Pneumonia

    HEMOTAOLOGIC MALIGNANCIES

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    71 . Your patient's work-up biopsy shows diffuse large B cell lymphoma (DLBCL) CD20 positive. He is started on RCHOP every 21 days with rituximab (Rituxan). Why was rituximab added to his treatment?
    A) To increase platelet counts during treatment
    B) To help prevent neutropenia
    C) Rituximab helps to prevent side effects of RCHOP.
    D) Rituximab targets CD20 cell-surface antigen.

    HEMOTAOLOGIC MALIGNANCIES

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    72 . What is the goal of induction chemotherapy for acute leukemias?
    A) Reduce the volume of bulky disease
    B) To shrink tumor size
    C) Control symptoms of the leukemia
    D) To lower tumor burden in preparation for radiation therapy

    HEMOTAOLOGIC MALIGNANCIES

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    73 . Oncology nurses should do which of the following to promote dialogue with patients?
    A) Provide education about the cancer
    B) Use empathy to promote caring
    C) Ask questions to help clarify the patients' concerns
    D) All of the above

    PSYCHOSOCIAL DIMENSIONS IN CANCER CARE

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    74 . Resolution of the process of grief may be encouraged by which of the following nursing interventions?
    A) Open discussion of feelings related to loss
    B) Provision of a sedative to promote rest
    C) Restriction of family members who may remind patient of loss
    D) Discouragement of negative emotions, such as anger

    PSYCHOSOCIAL DIMENSIONS IN CANCER CARE

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    75 . What is the most concerning outcome of depression in patients with cancer?
    A) Interference with interpersonal relationships
    B) Suicidal ideation or attempt
    C) Severe behavioral regression with loss of function
    D) Poor compliance with treatment recommendations

    PSYCHOSOCIAL DIMENSIONS IN CANCER CARE

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    76 . A 77-year-old patient's medication list states lisinopril, baby aspirin, vitamin D, and PRN ondansetron, and oxycodone. When the nurse reviews the medications with the patient, the critical component would be assessment of which of the following?
    A) Prescribed medicines
    B) Over-the-counter medicines
    C) Narcotic use
    D) Actual medication use

    CANCER IN THE OLDER AND LGBTQIA+ POPULATIONS

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    77 . Which nursing statement demonstrates accurate use of patient education using plain language?
    A) Take your oral chemotherapy at prescribed intervals.
    B) Take your pills at the time the pill bottle label says.
    C) The prescription label will address components of drug usage.
    D) Oral agents should be taken at discreet times outlined by the specialty pharmacist.

    CANCER IN THE OLDER AND LGBTQIA+ POPULATIONS

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    78 . A 72-year-old male patient with esophageal cancer is complaining of generalized severe pain. Which of the following would be appropriate for the nurse to consider when intervening?
    A) Use consistent pain assessment tool
    B) Avoid opioid pain medication
    C) Focus on the cancer pain
    D) Discourage integrative medicine

    CANCER IN THE OLDER AND LGBTQIA+ POPULATIONS

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    79 . A patient expresses to you that she continues to work 40 hours a week while undergoing treatment and meets all of her deadlines, but she feels her manager is trying to push her out. What law could her employer be violating?
    A) Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)
    B) Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA)
    C) Social Security
    D) Medicare

    SPECIAL CONCERNS IN THE CARE OF THE CANCER PATIENT

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    80 . What is not a characteristic of the Affordable Care Act?
    A) Young adults are able to stay on their parents' health insurance until age 26 years
    B) All preventative care visits are covered
    C) Insurance plans are not allowed to deny a person based on pre-existing conditions
    D) Individuals are only eligible if they make less than $40,000 per year

    SPECIAL CONCERNS IN THE CARE OF THE CANCER PATIENT

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    81 . What should a patient not do if they are transitioning to a new health insurance plan?
    A) Cancel their current insurance plan then apply for the new healthcare plan
    B) Connect with a financial counselor to guide through process
    C) Notify provider office as soon as they know to make them aware of the upcoming change
    D) Cancel their current insurance plan after they have been accepted into their new plan

    SPECIAL CONCERNS IN THE CARE OF THE CANCER PATIENT

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    82 . Five-year survival rates are highest for which cancer diagnosis for men and women, respectively?
    A) Pancreatic and uterine
    B) Lung and colon
    C) Brain and acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
    D) Prostate and breast

    CANCER SURVIVORSHIP AND PALLIATIVE AND HOSPICE CARE

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    83 . What are the most common side effects of cancer and its treatment?
    A) Pain, fatigue, and emotional distress
    B) Constipation, nausea, immobility
    C) Diarrhea, hypertension, skin changes
    D) Incontinence, sexual dysfunction, obesity

    CANCER SURVIVORSHIP AND PALLIATIVE AND HOSPICE CARE

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    84 . An advance directive should be completed by what type of individual?
    A) Seriously ill patient
    B) Healthy adult
    C) Provider
    D) Proxy

    CANCER SURVIVORSHIP AND PALLIATIVE AND HOSPICE CARE

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    85 . Which of the following serves as a guide to providers for appropriate methods of treatment and care by using the best available evidence?
    A) Clinical practice guidelines
    B) Accreditation
    C) National Patient Safety Goals
    D) Certification

    QUALITY, SAFETY, AND PERFORMANCE IMPROVEMENT IN HEALTH CARE

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    86 . What is the final step in the DESC communication process?
    A) Describe the specific situation.
    B) Consensus should be stated.
    C) Suggest other alternatives.
    D) Express your concerns about the action.

    QUALITY, SAFETY, AND PERFORMANCE IMPROVEMENT IN HEALTH CARE

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    87 . The nurse refuses to do a time out prior to start of procedure. In a just culture the response to this error would be based on
    A) impact on patient.
    B) type of behavior exhibited by nurse.
    C) additional length of stay.
    D) documentation.

    QUALITY, SAFETY, AND PERFORMANCE IMPROVEMENT IN HEALTH CARE

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    88 . Mr. S is an 80-year-old male with newly diagnosed pancreatic adenocarcinoma. He presents to the medical oncology team for initial treatment recommendations. Despite having an adequate performance status and organ function for treatment, Mr. S declines treatment and decides to pursue supportive care only. As the clinic nurse involved in his care, you know the care team must respect which ethical principle regarding the patient's care?
    A) Nonmaleficence
    B) Beneficence
    C) Veracity
    D) Autonomy

    COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY AND PROFESSIONAL ISSUES IN ONCOLOGY

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    89 . A professional registered nurse who provides individualized assistance to patients and families during their cancer journeys is often known as what?
    A) Patient advocate
    B) Nurse navigator
    C) Care manager
    D) Oncology clinic nurse

    COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY AND PROFESSIONAL ISSUES IN ONCOLOGY

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    90 . Mrs. W is a 32-year-old woman with newly diagnosed diffuse large B cell lymphoma. She is being admitted to the oncology floor for chemotherapy. As part of the admissions process, you ask her if she has an advance directive in place and document her answer in the medical record. This process is required by which federal law?
    A) Patient Self Determination Act of 1990
    B) 21st Century Cures Act
    C) Patient Navigator Outreach and Chronic Disease Act of 2005
    D) National Defense Authorization Act of 1996

    COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY AND PROFESSIONAL ISSUES IN ONCOLOGY

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